Beethoven is God.
Let me get this right. You make a statement which you claim to be true and I ask you for the factual basis of such a claim. You fail to provide any (on the very sound grounds that none exist) and then ask me to provide the factual basis for a statement I never made.
I am not saying, nor have I ever said, that less complex music is better than more complex music. In fact, I am making no claim whatsoever – I am merely disputing the claim you are making, and asking you to indicate its basis. The fact that you cannot provide such a basis after being given a number of opportunities to do so, of course, can only lead to one conclusion – that you are simply spouting a series of value judgments, none of which are any more valid than anyone else’s.
-Is there any objective definition of Music? (and are you aware of it).
-Is Music based on some value(s)? (a tip: there is no subjective value, because it's not recognised by others and, therefore, has no validity). If yes, define them.
- On Q 1,I imagine that any dictionary will define music if that’s what you’re looking for - but I can’t see that anyone would dispute that the Resurrection symphony, the Maple Leaf Rag or that stuff which they produce on the X Factor are all example of music. What point do you have in mind?
- You might need to give a few more tips, because this question is totally meaningless. What sort of values? Economic? Political? Monetary?
(Incidentally, your so called tip ‘there is no subjective value, because it's not recognised by others and, therefore, has no validity’ is also meaningless. Have you been on the cooking sherry again?)
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Mr. Craig, you escape by evading the questions, inventing (and reinventing) the arguments and offending the other side with words like "meaningless" (which give the actual value on your pronouncements and claims).
About superiority of "the less complex versus the more complex", you reinvent the argument. I never asked to prove the "opposite". I simply asked, on the same basis you dismiss my statement, to prove your own is right, since the fact that you simply don't accept my argumentation does not mean a priori that yours is right. So what you have to prove, on an factual basis, is whether both more complex and less complex music are of equal value. If there is no factual basis, I can contest your statement too.
As for the two questions, I was sure I will never get any answer, but a series of return questions.
So, if I need the definition of Music, I have to resort to a dictionary. How convenient! And which one? However, the second part of the question was whether you are aware of this definition. In the definition, normally we don't ask for "examples", but for the features that define (see confine) the notion in question. From these "features" you can identify what is "good" music and what is "less good". E.g. for identifying a "just" person from a "less just", you have to have an agreed definition of "justice" (at least to start with).
As for the values, they cannot be but only related to the subject. Music does not deal with and is not part of economics, politics or money. It's an Art. So, we are talking about artistic and aesthetic ones. As for the "tip": Normally, when we talk about value(s), we mean those who can be shared by all or the vast majority of those who have the same involvement in the matter; otherwise, we talk about relative values, who have any validity only to those who espouse them. So, the question, in plain form: Does Music rely on artistic and aesthetic values or not?
So, it's up to you to reply this time, again.
Parla
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As I mentioned previously, I am not claiming anything at all - other than that the point you are seeking to make about the superiority of complex music is a personal value judgment of your which has no basis in fact. I am no more suggesting that complex and simple music are of equal value than I am suggesting that Herbert von Karajan was once a member of the Jackson Five. All I’m saying is that the complexity of music – or indeed any intrinsic or technical aspect of it – is a purely descriptive criterion and not an evaluative one. And that any attempts to claim one piece of music is superior than any other is unrelated to those descriptive criteria and is instead a matter of individual taste.
(Most people would be happy with this, but you seem to want your own personal taste to have the authority of Holy Writ.)
This is exactly the point I made above. Music has a number of elements, as any dictionary will tell you – melody, harmony, rhythm, etc. – but they tell you absolutely nothing about the quality of the music. It’s a fact that the Ketchup Song has a melody, but whether that melody is good, bad or indifferent is purely a matter of opinion. And that goes for your opinion as it does for anyone else (sorry to be the bearer of bad news).
Still not that much clearer on what the question is. If you mean does music have absolute or eternal values, then the answer is clearly not. But if you mean is the value of a particular piece of music relative to the value of any other a matter of personal taste, then the answer is yes.
(And on a separate point, not sure where you get the idea from that art - any art - is separate from economic or politics is nonsense. If the Medici had lacked political power and wealth, they would have been unable to commission Michelangelo and Donatello. And without the vast wealth of the Guggenheim family, Jackson Pollock and Max Ernst would be total unknowns.)
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I guess this is a dead end. My last (possibly) response:
Beethoven is not great because of my "preference" or some others'.
The definition, if and when it is accepted, tells you what is harmony, melody, etc. and leads you to find out where there is the proper harmony, melody, etc. What can make you now free to decide is that you are not confined by any definition.
As for the values, apparently, you belong to the ones who believe that Art is a matter of taste. This is the only value I can trace from all your posts, which seems quite absolute and perennial. How convenient! In this case, I guess what the artists should learn is how they can fool you by giving what you like, so that they may stay alive, since there is no other recognition.
(Art is linked to politics, economy or even money, but the composer when he writes a fugue, he deals with his artistic goals only and his work is judged accordingly. That's the "other side's" bad news to you).
Parla
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If only it were your last response...
But, much as could have been anticipated, once you are pressed to justify the statements you make, you simply revert to restating them all over again.
The behaviour of a genuine charlatan.
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You have stated (in effect) that complex music is simply better than less complex music - although you haven’t given any indication why this should be the case. Busoni’s music is a lot more complex than Haydn’s – does that mean he’s the greater composer?
Your comment suggests that somehow you are aware that Haydn is a greater composer than Busoni, which is rather strange given that you seem to be arguing that such ranking is impossible.
Composition is an academic pursuit with a theory behind it that is widely accepted. Professors of composition can critique the quality of a composition, or mark their student's work, can't they? So it must be possible to say who is a great composer based on these sort of purely technical criteria without any reference to how a listener might value the music.
Ted
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Has anyone read '20th Century Composers' by Mark Morris. He ranks the composers of 20th Century with a star rating based on the quality of their work. Shostakovich, Bartok, Prokofiev all get 'top marks' for their artistic quality. Paul McCartneys Liverpool Oratorio isn't even considered - I wonder why that is, nothing to do with it's level of 'artistic quality' I presume.
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Yes Naupilus, but he also went to France and Poland, are you suggesting that nobody should go there either.
I didn't think I was, but maybe you know better than me what I am thinking.
I guess my problem with a statement such as 'Beethoven is God' is not that it may be fact but rather that it is absolute, and therefore inherently incapable of being an issue for debate.
Naupilus
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Composition is an academic pursuit with a theory behind it that is widely accepted. Professors of composition can critique the quality of a composition, or mark their student's work, can't they? So it must be possible to say who is a great composer based on these sort of purely technical criteria without any reference to how a listener might value the music.
Ted
Hi Ted
On your first point - not at all: whether Busoni is better than Haydn is a question that really doesn't interest me. Because it's purely a matter of opinion.
And on your second, of course there are many technical aspects to composition and academically there are criteria against which those criteria are judged. But I'd be very surprised if a student of composition would fail an assessment because his work lacked a certian level of 'complexity' in the sense that they hadn't written enough fugues or hadn't included a quodlibet. Satie's piano music is very simple, but that doesn't mean it woud fail a composition exam.
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whether Busoni is better than Haydn is a question that really doesn't interest me. Because it's purely a matter of opinion.
I can see you are struggling Craig, let me give you the answers. Haydn is better than Busoni and Beethoven is better than the Dixie Chicks. If you don't know the answers don't just put 'It's purely a matter of opinion' be honest and say 'I don't know'. Right stop looking over your shoulder and look at the test. Question 3 - Whatever happened to Micheal Tippett? Craig, you owe me one.
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Craig, if I was a "charlatan", I would not bother to debate with you in vain. I just thought that you may be fair enough to trace some kind of truth that might be elusive to you. The fact that I want to respect this forum from an unending and without any resolution discussion is not the response of a charlatan, at least, but, I guess, you are not capable of identifying even that.
I think you got some other responses similar to mine to show you that the evidence you cannot find in my statements is there, but you refuse to trace it, "hooked" on your preconceptions of Art and Music in particular (totally groundless and invalid, but that's not the point, at this stage of the course of the debate).
However, if you really wish to find the truth, try to learn to read a score and, then, you will be absolutely able to find any difference and make your own judgements, based on a more factual basis. The music is exactly like literature: it has its alphabet (the notes of the western diatonic scale), its grammar (how these notes are used in order: tonalities, modes, modulations), its syntax (harmony, counterpoint). So, as in literature, the one who knows and commands the language, can write a more comprehensive, consistent, poetic, beautiful work compared to one who uses limited words, makes minimal use of grammar and syntax. The same happens in music.
Of course, you will contest even this fact with a weak example of some even irrelevant nature, but, what can we do, this is who you are. I wonder what is your relationship with music and Art in general.
Finally, even if we take the politically correct (as much political or correct might be) term of "taste" as the basis of judging a work of Art (including Music), still we have to agree what this "taste" is (objective definition) and, as long as we have this definition, we will be in a position to call this is "good" taste and this is "bad" taste. Based even on this logic, the works of Art who fall on the so called "good" taste should be considered as "better" than the ones who fall in the "bad" taste. For some funny reason, all these years, in all the places I have been (including the States), I used to hear the opposite comment: when someone mentioned the artistic object of his desire, then he was told that he has a "good" or "bad" taste (accordingly) and not the other way round. Anyway, values change with time (maybe in U.K. and in some parts of US).
Good luck with your taste folks.
Parla
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Good luck with your taste folks.
I've always had the best of luck with my taste. Naturally, because my taste is superior to everyone else's. Otherwise it wouldn't be my taste.
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Brilliant syllogism, Guillaume, absolutely brilliant.
Since, however, you don't have a final definition of what "taste" is, I doubt if you can properly define what your "taste" is and, thereupon, to command it. That means, beware! Some good guys, called producers (and their likes), may manipulate, dictate, guide even fool your taste, if you don't have a basis of what is actually "good" and "bad" in Music and anything else, actually.
So, again good luck!
Parla
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I define my "taste" as what I like and don't like, with various shades in between. I think I've been listening to music for long enough (over four decades) to have a pretty good idea of what my taste is. As for what is "good" or "bad" in music, only the latter adjective is of interest. We all know what good music is. But what is "bad" music? Other than music that is clearly incompetently written or performed, which isn't the case with most professionally produced music these days, I've no idea.
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Yes Naupilus, but he also went to France and Poland, are you suggesting that nobody should go there either.